"I will sing before angels", David says in LXX Ps 137.1 rather than "I will sing before the gods" in the MT. Is this difference important? Yes it is as Paul seems to have been influenced by the LXX version when the apostle wrote to the Corinthians that women's heads should be covered because of or on account of the angels (1Cor 11.10).
Paul obviously believes that when the church is assembled for worship, angelic beings are present and that the angels observe the decorum and order of things including women's submission to men as the former is the glory of the latter (1 Cor 11.7)
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